Quote From: sheltie2Jesus ALWAYS upheld the Old Testament Law (Matt 5:17-19) which strictly condemned homosexual acts (not people). He didn't come to do away with the law, he came to fulfill it. In other words, Jesus inaugurated a new era in which the Law as understood by the Jews of His day would no longer be the guiding principle for the Kingdom of God (Luke 16:16). Nevertheless, Jesus claimed not to have come to destroy the Law, but to fulfill it (Matt. 5:17-20). That is, Jesus moved the understanding of the Law from its external, legalistic meaning to its spiritual one. Moving from outward observance to inward motivation and intention is Jesus’ concern (Matt. 5:21, 22, 27, 28). He pushes the Law out to its ultimate meaning (thus filling it full). In this sense Jesus affirmed the heart and the spirit of the Law. He moved to a deeper level of meaning, to the spirit behind the Law which God had intended from the beginning.
Jesus did not give us a new law. When Jesus was asked which commandment is the greatest, He said, “Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul and with all thy mind,” (Matt. 22:36, 37). Jesus said the second commandment is like the first, “Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself” (Matt. 22:39). Then He said, “On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets” (Matt. 22:40). Incredibly, Jesus summed up the whole Law and the teaching of the prophets with these two commandments. Behind all of the Law had stood these two great principles of love for God and neighbor. It is important for us to remember that love can never be adequately portrayed in rules or in teachings. It can be seen in the life, death, and resurrection of our Lord. The commandments to love had been there all along; Jesus simply emphasized them in a way that would forever change how we should look at them.
Malachi 2:16 says that God hates divorce. The Bible definitely encourages remaining singe or reconciliation over remarriage. At the same time, I believe that God offers His mercy and grace to the innocent party in divorce, and allow that person to remarry without it being considered adultery.
According to the bible, if a person who gets a divorce for any other reason than "marital unfaithfulness" and then gets remarried – that person has committed adultery (Luke 16:18). The question then becomes, is this remarriage an "act" of adultery, or a "state" of adultery. The present tense of the Greek in Matthew 5:32; 19:9; and Luke 16:18 can indicate a continuous state of adultery. At the same time, the present tense in Greek does not always indicate continuous action. Sometimes it simply means that something occurred (Aoristic, Punctiliar, or Gnomic present). For example, the word "divorces" in Matthew 5:32 is present, but divorcing is not a continual action. Only the act of getting remarried itself is adultery. In the OT law, the punishment for an adulterer was death. At the same time, in Deuteronomy it mentions remarriage after divorce, and does not call it adultery and does not demand the death penalty for the remarried spouse. Nowhere does the bible expicity state that God hates remarriage. The Bible nowhere commands a remarried couple to divorce. Deuteronomy 24: 1-4 does not describe the remarriage as invalid.
I'm going to try to be very clear about when I am stating my own personal convictions and when I am debating points of logic or consistency....please bear with me if I falter....
Jesus moved the understanding of the Law from its external, legalistic meaning to its spiritual one. Moving from outward observance to inward motivation and intention is Jesus’ concern (Matt. 5:21, 22, 27, 28). He pushes the Law out to its ultimate meaning (thus filling it full). In this sense Jesus affirmed the heart and the spirit of the Law. He moved to a deeper level of meaning, to the spirit behind the Law which God had intended from the beginning
I definitely agree with this. It seems that if people are adhering to Biblical rules simply because they fear eternal damnation, then they haven't internalized a relationship with God...well, I'm not sure they are any more fulfilled than people who "break the rules". This is why I feel compelled to question and seek out all possible interpretations and understandings of God's word.
The Bible definitely encourages remaining singe or reconciliation over remarriage. At the same time, I believe that God offers His mercy and grace to the innocent party in divorce, and allow that person to remarry without it being considered adultery.
Not to be combative, but this seems a bit hypocritical in light of using absolute, literal scripture to condemn homosexuality. Why is it okay to believe that God is merciful in a divorce situation despite what the Bible says, but not homosexuality? Why should homosexuals be forced to live lonely, celibate lives to be "Christians", but divorce (which seems more clearly condemned) gets a free pass? Why wouldn't God be equally merciful to the innocent homosexual who cannot fake an attraction to the opposite sex, and allow that person to have a loving, fulfilling relationship?
For example, the word "divorces" in Matthew 5:32 is present, but divorcing is not a continual action. Only the act of getting remarried itself is adultery
This just seems like a big giant convenient loophole for heterosexuals. I guess with the divorce rate being what it is, if churches condemned divorce and remarriage as strongly as they condemn homosexuality, the coffers would be quite empty. This gives a free pass to knowingly and intentionally commit the "sin" of divorce and adultery, with the intention of repenting and being forgiving. How would the prayer of repentence go? "Okay God, I know this competely goes against the Bible, which I strenuously preach to everyone else, but I knew You'd forgive me, so let's move on now. After all, THIS adultery is a one time sin....no double jeopardy!!"
Using that logic, we can all intentionally sin as much we want, knowing we can simply ask for forgiveness afterwards. Can gays have sex, repent, have sex again, repent....? Can their "marriage" be a one time sin if they ask for forgiveness?
Also, all the passages I found about divorce stated that whosoever married a divorced person was an adulterer. It seemed pretty clear.
Personally, I don't consider divorce to be a sin. But I really don't think homosexuality is a sin either. I think in the end, God will know our hearts, our intentions, our struggles, and our limitations. God does not simpIy know what we do, He understands why - better than we, or any other human, can understand. It seems a contradiction to believe that God loves us and wants us to be happy and fulfilled and also say that he would want anyone to live a life of loneliness and celibacy simply because we either made a poor marriage choice, or because our sexual and intimate desires are for the same gender.
Okay - I have NO IDEA how the letters got this big and the spell check is not working - so you are going to have to turn off the grammar part of your brain, please. My little one pulled the H out of my laptop and it still skips!!